I was originally going to post on something completely different, but an interesting discussion arose at work regarding the nature of God and the universe and so off I go on another philosophical rabbit trail.
To set the stage, one of my coworkers is currently involved in a discussion with various people online about the validity of atheism vs theism, and some very thought provoking comments have been made. So I wanted to consider some of these things and investigate them through my own understanding.
This post is not an attempt to necessarily sway anyone's thinking - but rather, an explanation of how I personally frame my belief structure. If you wish to contribute and comment, feel free and I will gladly respond. If you wish to start arguing and slinging mud and calling me names, I will promptly ignore you.
What is the nature of God? One of the first comments someone made was this: "You cannot in one breath claim that the universe has a cause and that God does not." My response (and that of my coworker) was simply: "Why not?"
To explore that further, the statement that we cannot make these two claims presumes a few things about the nature of God, life, the universe, and everything (the nerd in me cannot write that phrase without the obligatory: "42"). Joking and Douglas Adams aside, the fundamental assumption is that BOTH God and the universe REQUIRE a cause. Why can't one? If the divine is unlimited and exists outside the construct of time as an eternal being, why is it necessary that He (I use "he" because the patriarchal tradition of the writers of the scriptures compelled them to identify him as such - any feminists/people who take offense at my use of the male pronoun when referencing God, check the end of this post for a point to consider) be created?
To demand that something have been created cedes the existence of a beginning and a limitation on the eternality of its nature. But God is (in the Christian tradition) eternal. How is this a contradiction to claim that something with a definite beginning requires a cause whereas something without a beginning does not?
Simply put, it's not.
Okay, so the universe was created. Does that necessitate the existence of God? I believe so, and so does renowned Christian philosopher William Lane Craig. I love Craig's arguments because they're relatively accessible to the average reader. If you get the chance, pick up one of his books and give it a shot. The argument for the existence of God (in this case, defined as: "the initial cause of the universe". Nothing more. Nothing less.) that Craig outlines is called the Kalam Cosmological Argument. It goes like this:
- Everything that begins to exist must have a cause
- The universe began to exist
- Therefore, the universe must have a cause
Anyone with even the remotest background in logic will be jumping up and down screaming at me right now. And rightly so. Point number 2 MUST be proven before being made as an assertion. Right now, you would be hard pressed to find many scientists who believe that the universe is infinite on hard scientific grounds. There are plenty who believe this on the basis of philosophical beliefs, but scientifically and mathematically, the creation point of the universe has been fairly well established. That being the case, why not establish the finite nature of the universe philosophically?
Being a mathematician, I have a slightly easier time grasping the difficulty of an infinite number of actual things than some people do. They write it off to "it's too big for me to grasp, but it's possible". This bothers me greatly, because I've had to deal with infinity within the construct of a system of equations, mathematical models, and various other systems that completely and utterly collapse when one attempts to actualize the concept of infinity. So to set the stage for this, here's an example of the difficulty of having an infinite number of anything.
This model works with units of time as well, but I'm going to use marbles. People seem to have an easy time picturing this sort of thing with marbles. Don't ask me why. Assume for a moment that I have an infinite number of marbles. I decide that I want to give you an infinite number of marbles. To do so, I have multiple options.
If I give you every other marble, you would have an infinite number of marbles. You would have all of the even numbered marbles and I would have all of the odd numbered marbles. Since you and I both have an infinite number of marbles, we've arrived at an arithmetical expression - specifically, that infinity minus infinity equals infinity.
This isn't something we haven't seen before. 0 - 0 = 0, so it's entirely possible that the same could hold true for infinity. But what if I choose a different method to give you an infinite number of marbles? Let's say I decide to give you ALL of my marbles. You now have an infinite number, but the remainder that was previously in my possession is nowhere to be found. We have arrived at another arithmetical expression - infinity minus infinity equals zero.
This too isn't all that difficult to understand, as we know from first grade math that x - x = 0. The difficulty rears its ugly head when we try to reconcile these two arithmetic expressions and then expand the hypothetical marble problem. The only way that these two expressions can be reconciled is if the value of infinity is zero. Unfortunately, the concept of infinity is specifically qualified as non-zero. Either the subtraction of infinity from itself results in a complete loss of numerical value or else no loss of numerical value. As it is a non-zero by definition, both actions cannot occur.
Now let's expand our example a little bit. My ultimate goal is to give you an infinite number of marbles, so I decide to keep two and give you the rest. You now have an infinite number of marbles and I have two. Yet ANOTHER arithmetical expression is uncovered: infinity minus infinity equals two. Or three. Or four. Or whatever you wish it to be. The fact of the matter is that infinity is something that cannot be manipulated through additive processes due to the arbitrary nature of how we tend to define it. Infinity is not subject to arithmetic.
Mathematicians have this beaten into them (typically during the second year of college when someone attempts to break this rule). The rest of the population . . . not so much. So now that we recognize this, let's continue looking at the Kalam Argument.
Remember, I said that this can be done with units of time in addition to marbles? This is where this all comes into play. In order to prove that the universe must have begun to exist, we must consider that the universe exists within the constraints of time. The passage of time is marked through an additive process, each year adds to the next to create a cumulative quantification of how much time has passed.
Infinity is not subject to arithmetic, and an additive process is arithmetical by nature.
- The series of events in time is a collection formed by adding one number after another.
- A collection of events formed through an additive process cannot be actually infinite.
- Therefore, the series of events in time cannot be infinite.
Keeping this in mind, consider what would happen if we had a universe with no beginning. With an infinite amount of time, an infinite series of events will have occurred, as the passage of time is measured through a collection of events.
- An actually infinite number of things cannot exist (we've established this through our marble illustration).
- A series of events in time without a beginning entails an actually infinite number of things.
- Therefore, a beginning-less series of events in time cannot exist.
Since a beginning-less universe necessitates an infinite number of events, the universe MUST have had a beginning.
So there we have it - the universe must have a cosmological cause, and the existence of God (as we initially defined him) has been proven.
There are TONS of other things to investigate, but this post is already a bit too verbose. Expect further investigation into this sort of thing for the next few days.
Oh, and ladies/feminists/whoever - here's what I was going to say: I use the male pronoun "he/him" to refer to God because that is what was established in the writing of the scriptures, and I recognize that it's specifically due to a patriarchal society and mindset that was in place at the time. I use it because it's easy and almost universally accepted. Do I think God is male? No. I don't think God is female either. It's just as reflective of a limited mindset to refer to God as "she/her". God stated that mankind was to be created in his own image, and I believe that this sexual dimorphism is something that is contained within the nature of God. So there you have it - God contains and perfects both male and female qualities. God is both, and neither, at the same time.
This is why God said "I AM", not "I am he" or "I am she".
The next time you hear someone refer to God as "he", take a moment and breathe. Untwist your panties, and remember that just because someone mistakenly uses a specific pronoun, the nature of God doesn't change.